Gary Moore’s answered puzzled me at many points. I’m not
sure exactly what he was trying to say sometimes. For example, when he says “Neither
did Malachi say to bring the full tithes for the operation of the temple. The
storehouse was for the needy,” I’m puzzled at how he views the relationship
between the Old Covenant institution of “temple” and the New Covenant “church.”
While the three main tithes commanded in the Mosaic Law (Festival, Levitical,
and Charity) were all related, on some level, to the needy or poor, the
Levitical Tithe really shouldn’t be viewed as for the poor. The “storehouse”
was simply the place where the tithes were stored.
I fully agree with his analysis of the Empty Tomb data, but
I’m not sure how that relates to the actual question. I think he was trying to
insert a motivation to give more (which I generally agree with).
His conclusion: “Should the church reassume more biblical
responsibilities, it would be entitled to more of the biblical tithe.” Oh how I
wish he had attempted to define the tithe! If he means “10% of income,” then I
would need to disagree with that definition. I can only assume he means that
since he gives no other definition, but that definition cannot be sustained
from Scripture.
Amie Streater is very clear: if you give part of your tithe
to some other charity besides your local church, you are disobedient. She
claims that tithing “is not spoken of differently in the Old and New
Testaments.” While I actually kind of agree with that statement, it really
hurts the argument being made. Since there were multiple tithes in the Old
Testament Law, and since it is claimed that the tithe is not “spoken of
differently,” that means Christians better be giving at least 20% of their
income (or should I say, at least 20% of the produce from their crops and
cattle [at least, those that are from the land of Israel]).
She gives a clear definition: “Tithe means a tenth.” The
dictionary might say that, but that does not define the tithe in Scripture. She
utilizes Deuteronomy 26:1-4 to demonstrate that the tithe must go to “the local
church.” She then cites Malachi 3:10 and
the “storehouse,” calling it “the church.” On what basis is the temple of
Deuteronomy 26 and the “storehouse” of Malachi 3 equal to the church?
After explaining the typical view on tithing prevalent in churches
today, she says: “As believers we can choose to bicker and nitpick about these
Scriptures and search for evidence to give less. We have the freedom to do
that.” Ouch. So, I guess that is a pre-emptive strike on those who disagree
with her about tithing. Apparently they (including “me”) are trying to find
ways to give less … I will respectfully disagree with that evaluation of the
motivation of my heart.
Douglas LeBlanc explains that his Dad interpreted Malachi
3:10 to mean that Christians must tithe (“10% of income”?) to their place of
worship. Then he states: “Whether my father’s exegesis would pass the muster of
scholastic theologians does not matter to me.” Ouch (again!). What exactly does
this mean? Is he saying: “whether or not the text actually meant/means what my
father says, I will teach it to others”? … or maybe just that he disagrees with
those “scholastic theologians”.
His answer to the question of the article is that splitting
the tithe between a charity and our local church is not robbing God, but we “patronize
God’ and we “distort tithing to mean something foreign to Scripture.”
Interesting … so the meaning of Scripture does matter at this point. He never
really defined “tithing” in Scripture, so I’m left to assume he believes it
means “10% of income.” Again, we will disagree on this point.
So, I find zero satisfaction in all three of these answers,
with the first being the closest to my view. What is my view? Well, you’ll have
to come back tomorrow to find out!